ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 32
1. What is not the primary data given by the tester
in test execution
a. Total number of tests
b. Number of test cases written for change request
c. Number of test executed to date
d. Number of tests executed successfully to date
2. Do the current project results meet the
performance requirements? Which
section of Project Status Report I should look for:
a. Vital Project Information
b. General Project Information
c. Project Activities Information
d. Essential Elements Information
3. Which is a section of Summary status report
a. Vital project information
b. Essential elements information
c. Project activities information
d.Time Line Information
4.Test Result data is
a. Test Transactions
b. Test events
c. Business objectives
d. Reviews
5.What types of efficiench can be evaluated during
testing?
a. Software system
b. Testing
c. Development
d. A and C
e. A and B
6.Who is essentially responsible for the quality of
a product?
a. Customer
b. QA Manager
c. Development Manager
d. Test Manager
7.What are the 3 costs that make up the Cost of
Quality?
a. Prevention, Appraisal, Failure
b. Appraisal, Developement, Testing
c. Testing, Prevention, rework
d. Failure, Prevention, Testing
8.What are expected production costs?
a. labor, materials, and equipment
b. personnel, training, and rollout
c. training, testing, user-acceptance
9.Appraisal costs are:
a. Costs associated with preventing errors
b. Costs associated with detection of errors
c. Costs associated with defective products delivered to customers
10.An example of a Failure Cost is:
a. Training
b. Inspections
c. Rework
11. If you could build a 0 defect product, would
there be any costs involved?
If yes, what costs?
a. Preventive costs, but they are minimally involved
b. No costs will be involved
c. Failure costs
12. How many Deming principles are there?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 7
13. How many levels are in the CMM?
a. 18
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14. The Pareto analysis is most effective for:
a) Ranking items by importance
b) Showing relationships between items Measuring the impact of
identified items
15. What is COTS?
a. Commercial On-the-shelf software
b. Commercial off-the-shelf software
c. Common Offshore testing Software
16. What is the purpose of code coverage tools?
a. They are used to show the extent to which the logic in the
program
was executed during testing.
b. They are used as an alternative to testing
c. They are used to compile the program
17.Four examples of test specific metrics.
a. Testing Effort variation, Defect Density, Testing Efficiency,
Requirements tested.
b. Inspection, review efficiency, Testing Effort variation, Defect
Density
c. Test scalability, Defect deviation, Testing Efficiency,
Schedule variation
18.Give one commonly recognized size measurement
tool.
a. Effort analysis
b. LCO Analysis
c. LOC Analysis
d. Code Analysis
19.Give three components included in a system test
report.
a. Description of Testing; resource requirement; and
Recommendation
b. Testing requirements; defects; and usability
c. Description of test results and finding(defects);
Summary(environment and
references; and Recommendation)
20.Reviews is what category of cost of quality?
a. preventive
b. Appraisal
c. Failure
21.The largest cose of quality is from production
failure
a. True
b. False
22. Defects are least costly to correct at what
stage of the development cycle?
a. Requirements
b. Analysis and Design
c. Construction
d. Implementation
23. The purpose of software testing is to:
a. Demonstrate that the application works properly
b. Detect the defects
c. Validate the logical design
24. _________must be developed to describe when and
how testing will
occur.
a. Test Strategy
b. Test Plan
c. Test Design
d. High Level document
25. It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level
risks
a. True
b. False
26. __________ testing assumes that the path of
logic in a unit or program
is known.
a. Black Box testing
b. Performance Testing
c. White Box testing
d. Functional testing
27. _________ test is conducted at the developer’s
site by a customer.
a. Beta
b. System
c. Alpha
d. None of the above
28. Juran is famous for
a. Quality Control
b. Working on Trend Analysis
c. Pareto
d. Fish Bone Diagram
29.Software testing activities should start
a. As soon as the code is written
b. During the design stage
c. When the requirements have been formally documented
d. As soon as possible in the development lifecycle
30.Non statistical tools are used in the
a. Work Practice process
b. Benchmarking process
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
31.Quality Function deploement(QFD) is a
a. Statistical tool
b. Non statistical tool
c. Development tool
d. None of the above
32.The sequence of the four Phases involved in Bench
marking process is
a. Action, Planning, Integration, Analysis
b. Planning, Analysis, Integration, Action
c. Analysis, Planning, Integration, Action
d. Analysis, Action, Planning, Integration
33.Defect Density is calculated by
a. Total no. of Defects/Effort
b. Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defect
c. Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects
d. Valid Defects/ Effort
34.Effort Variation is calculated by
a. (Planned-Actual)/Actual
b. (Actual-Planned)/Actual
c. (Actual-Planned)/Planned
d. (Planned-Actully)/Planned
35.Percentage Rework is calculated by
a. (Review effort + Rework effort)/Actual Effort expended
b. (Review effort + Rework effort)/Actual Effort expended
c. Rework Effort/Planned Effort
d. Rework Effort/Actual Effort expanded
36. The ______________ is an application of process
management and quality
improvement concepts to software development and
maintenance.
a. Malcolm Baldridge
b. ISO 9000
c. SEI/CMM
d. QS14000
37. A quantitative measurement used to determine the
test completion is
a. Defect measurement
b. Requirements coverage
c. Statistical Analysis
38. The categories of Error Oriented Techniques are
a. Statistical assessment and Error-based testing
b. Error-based testing and Fault based testing.
c. Fault based testing and Statistical assessment
d. Statistical assessment, Error-based testing and Fault based testing.
39. The following factors should be considered for
the Test Tool selection
1.Test Phase
2.Test Objective
3.Test Technique
4.Test Deliverable
a. 1 & 2
b. 1,2,3& 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1,2& 3
40. Equivalence partitioning consists of various
activities:
a. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence
class
at least once
b. Identify all inputs and all outputs
c. Identify equivalence classes for each input
d. All of the above
Answers:
Q.1-B
Q.2-D
Q.3-D
Q.4-C
Q.5-E
Q.6-C
Q.7-A
Q.8-A
Q.9-B
Q.10-C
Q.11-A
Q.12-B
Q.13-D
Q.14-A
Q.15-B
Q.16-A
Q.17-A
Q.18-C
Q.19-C
Q.20-B
Q.21-A
Q.22-A
Q.23-A
Q.24-B
Q.25-A
Q.26-C
Q.27-C
Q.28-A
Q.29-D
Q.30-B
Q.31-B
Q.32-B
Q.33-A
Q.34-C
Q.35-D
Q.36-C
Q.37-B
Q.39-B
Q.40-D
