Friday, 18 December 2015

ISTQB-2015 CERTIFICATION DUMP 12

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 12
1. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users
is called:
a)an error
b)a fault
c)a failure
d)a defect
2. Regression testing should be performed:
v)every week
w)after the software has changed
x)as often as possible
y)when the environment has changed
z)when the project manager says
a)v& w are true, x, y & z are false
b)w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c)w& y are true, v, x & z are false
3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a)test items
b)test deliverables
c)test tasks
d)test specifications
4. When should testing be stopped?
a)when all the planned tests have been run
b)when time has run out
c)when all faults have been fixed correctly
d)it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999
inclusive.
Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid
equivalence
classes and valid boundaries?
a)1000, 50000, 99999
b)9999, 50000, 100000
c)10000, 50000, 99999
6. Consider the following statements about early test design:
i.early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii.faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii.early test design can find faults
iv.early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v.early test design normally takes more effort
a)i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b)iii& iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c)i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d)i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
7. Non-functional system testing includes:
a)testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b)testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c)testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d)testing for functions that should not exist
8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a)auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b)status accounting of configuration items
c)identification of test versions
9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
integration testing
in the small?
a)to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b)to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c)to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d)to specify how the software should be divided into modules
10. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a)to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b)to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c)to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d)to determine when to stop testing
11. Consider the following statements:
i.an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii.incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii.the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv.the incident record does not include information on test environments.
a)ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b)i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c)i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d)i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
12. Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number
of test
cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q> 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
a)1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b)1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c)1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
13. Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a)ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b)i& v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c)ii& iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d)ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
14. Functional system testing is:
a)testing that the system functions with other systems
b)testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c)testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d)testing the system performs functions within specified response times
15. Incidents would not be raised against:
a)requirements
b)documentation
c)test cases
d)improvements suggested by users
16. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?
a)operating systems
b)test documentation
c)live data
d)user requirement documents
17. Maintenance testing is:
a)updating tests when the software has changed
b)testing a released system that has been changed
c)testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d)testing to maintain business advantage
18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a)the use of a variable before it has been defined
b)unreachable (“dead”) code
c)memory leaks
19. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a)state transition testing
b)LCSAJ
c)syntax testing
d)boundary value analysis
20. Beta testing is:
a)performed by customers at their own site
b)performed by customers at the software developer's site
c)performed by an Independent Test Team
d)performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by
developers, and
which by an independent system test team?
i.static analysis
ii.performance testing
iii.test management
a)developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b)developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c)developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d)developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
22. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a)finding faults in the system
b)ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c)testing the system with other systems
d)testing from a business perspective
23. Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a)black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b)white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c)cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d)black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a)inspection is the most formal review process
b)inspections should be led by a trained leader
c)managers can perform inspections on management documents
d)inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
following,
EXCEPT:
a)calculating expected outputs
b)comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c)recording test inputs
d)reading test values from a data file
26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a)re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for
unexpected side-effects
b)re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original
fault has
been removed
c)re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d)re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
27. Expected results are:
a)only important in system testing
b)only used in component testing
c)most useful when specified in advance
28. What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
a)walkthrough
b)inspection
c)management review
d)post project review
29. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a)component testing
b)non-functional system testing
c)user acceptance testing
d)maintenance testing
30. What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a)setting up forms and databases
b)analysing metrics and improving processes
c)writing the documents to be inspected
d)time spent on the document outside the meeting
31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a)to find faults in the software
b)to prove that the software has no faults
c)to give confidence in the software
d)to find performance problems
32. Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review
processes:
1.led by the author
2.undocumented
3.no management participation
4.led by a moderator or leader
5.uses entry and exit criteria
s)inspection
t)peer review
u)informal review
v)walkthrough
a)s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b)s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c)s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
33. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a)business process-based testing
b)performance, load and stress testing
c)usability testing
d)top-down integration testing
34. Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a)expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b)expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c)expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d)expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a)ISO/IEC 12207
b)BS 7925-1
c)ANSI/IEEE 829
d)ANSI/IEEE 729
36. The cost of fixing a fault:
a)is not important
b)increases the later a fault is found
c)decreases the later a fault is found
d)can never be determined
37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation Standard?
a)what is not to be tested
b)test environment properties
c)quality plans
d)schedules and deadlines
38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a)no, because they apply to development documentation
b)no, because they are normally applied before testing
c)yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d)yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a)measuring response times
b)recovery testing
c)simulating many users
d)generating many transactions
40. Error guessing is best used:
a)after more formal techniques have been applied
b)as the first approach to deriving test cases
c)by inexperienced testers
d)after the system has gone live
Answers:
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 A
21 A
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 D
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C
39 B
40 A

ISTQB-2015 CERTIFICATION DUMP 11

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 11
1. Which of the following is true
a. Testing is the same as quality assurance
b. Testing is a part of quality assurance
c. Testing is not a part of quality assurance
d. Testing is same as debugging
2. Why is testing necessary?
a. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software
b. Because verification and validation are nto enough to get to know the quality of the
software
c. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase
the
quality
d. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.
3. Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I is correct
c. I, III and IV are correct
d. I, II and IV are correct
4. A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module,
related to
reports. The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
a. The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
b. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other
modules
c. The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do
regression
testing
d. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one
module
may affect other modules
5. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?
a. Static analysis tools are used only by developers
b. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis
c. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects
d. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage
6. In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane
model is an input.
A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity
of the plane.
Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated.
Which of the
following lists is correct?
a. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
b. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1
c. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number
7. For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents
minimum tests
required for statement and branch coverage respectively?
Discount rate=1;
Fare = 1000;
If ((person == “senior citizen”) and (“travel month = January”))
Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints
If (class==”first”)
discountRate = .5;
Fare = fare * discountRate;
a. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2
b. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 2
c. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 3
d. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 4
8. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools
a. They help you find defects rather than failures
b. They are used by developers only
c. They require compilation of code
d. They are useful only for regulated industries
9. Acme Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing
GUI of their
product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has put some of the
manual
testers through a 3 day training program on how to use the tool. Which of the
following is likely
to be true?
a. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience
b. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate
c. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent
changes
d. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.
10. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing.
Which of the
following sentences describes one of these basic principles?
a. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test
tools
b. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the
quality of a product than with manual testing
c. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and
output combinations.
d. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.
11. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test
set?
a. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
b. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be
identified and fixed
c. A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
d. A goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.
12. In system testing...
a. .. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested
b. ... Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated
in
a review
c. ... Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated
in
a review
d. ... Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested
13. Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal
review?
a. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process
b. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional
c. A walkthrough requires meeting
d. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures
14. Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?
a. Because it is an industry standard
b. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near
the
‘edges’ of the range of values
c. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are
considered in the test cases
d. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits
15. Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?
a. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing
b. System testing, performance testing
c. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing
d. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing
16. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to
be
developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
a. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
b. Software delivery is behind schedule
c. Threat to a patient’s life
d. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated
17. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?
a. Number of detected defects, testing cost;
b. Number of residual defects in the test object.
c. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases
prepared
d. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed
18. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution
b. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of
different configurations
c. Stress testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full load
d. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle
19. What makes an inspection different from other review types?
a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
b. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
c. It can only be used for reviewing design and code
d. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
20. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the
following
problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and
including 15
a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
d. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more
21. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the
following
problem: Paying with credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex
cards only.
a. Visa, Master, Amex;
b. Visa, Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option
c. Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card
d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex
22. Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?
a. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
b. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
c. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
d. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing
23. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect
registered and
enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status
tracking, which
method would be best?
a. Logic-based testing
b. Use-case-based testing
c. State transition testing
24. If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the
following
coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% branch coverage
b. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
c. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
d. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%
25. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100%
decision coverage?
a. 2
b. Indefinite
c. 1
26. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the
testware and the test object
b. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change
control board
c. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools
27. What test items should be put under configuration management?
a. The test object, the test material and the test environment
b. The problem reports and the test material
c. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d. The test object and the test material
28. Why is successful test execution automation difficult?
a. Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
b. Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult
c. Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
d. Because the test robot needs to be supported by a test management.
29. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified
a. (I) and (II) are correct
b. (I) through (IV) are correct
c. (III) through (V) are correct
d. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
30. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface
bug?
a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other
one
used British units
b. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding
the
input error cause
d. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
31. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
(I) contractual requirements
(II) legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) application risk
(V) project size
a. (I) through (III) are correct
b. All alternatives are correct
c. (II) and (V) are correct
d. (I), (III) and (V) are correct
32. If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the
following
coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% Equivalence class coverage
b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
c. 100% Statement coverage
d. 100% Multiple condition coverage
33. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path
coverage?
a. One
b. Indefinite
c. Two
d. Four
34. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
a. To specify when to stop the testing activity
b. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
d. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
35. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
a. The version number of the test object
b. Test data and used environment
c. Identification of the test case that failed
d. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
36. V-Model is:
a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with
software development phases
b. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
c. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
d. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases
37. Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang” integration?
a. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation
ability
b. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications
c. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up”
development model
d. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate
component
testing
38. Maintenance testing is:
a. Testing management
b. Synonym of testing the quality of service
c. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
d. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor
39. A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?
a. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
b. Actual result
c. History of the report
40. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
a. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide
what
will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.
b. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will
schedule
the test-cycles
d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme
cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.
Answers:
1 - B
2 - C
3 - C
4 - D
5 - B
6 - B
7 - A
8 - A
9 - A
10 - C
11 - B
12 - A
13 - B
14 - B
15 - C
16 - C
17 - D
18 - C
19 - A
20 - A
21 - D
22 - B
23 - C
24 - B
25 - A
26 - A
27 - A
28 - B
29 - B
30 - A
31 - B
32 - B
33 - C
34 - A
35 - D
36 - A
37 - A
38 - C
39 - B