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Thursday, 19 November 2015
Sunday, 8 November 2015
ISTQB-2015 CERTIFICATION DUMP 8
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 8
1. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software
2. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence
testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing
3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system
divided by the size of the
component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the
number found by that
test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system
divided by the number
of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the
number found by the
size of the system
4. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
5. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi
6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester
determines that all scores
from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores
below 90 will not. This analysis
is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
7. All of the following might be done during unit
testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walk-through
D. Compiler based testing
8. What is the concept of introducing a small change
to the program and having
the effects of that change show up in some test?
A. Introducing mutations
B. Performance testing
C. A mutation error
D. Debugging a program
9. Which of the following characteristics is
primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other
applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different
users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different
platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
10. Which of the following software change
management activities is most vital to
assessing the impact of proposed software
modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control
11. Which of the following statements is true about
a software verification and
validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a
software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development
activities.
A. I, II&III B.II, III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV
12. Which of the following is a requirement of an
effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
A.I, II &III B.I, II &IV C.II, III&IV D.I, III&IV
13. A test manager wants to use the resources
available for the automated testing
of a web application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
14. A project manager has been transferred to a
major software development
project that is in the implementation phase. The
highest priority for this project
manager should be to
A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan.
C. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the
manager’ s management
style.
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
15. Change X requires a higher level of authority
than Change Y in which of the
following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications
during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group
Documents requested by
customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single
user
16. Which of the following functions is typically
supported by a software quality
information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
A.I, II&III B.II, III &IV C.I, III &IV D.I, II &
IV
17. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds
a bug and assigned it to
developer. But developer rejects the same, saying
that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’
should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the
developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and
check the reproducibility
18. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with
the actual behavior of the
running program during system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
19. A type of integration testing in which software
elements, hardware elements,
or both are combined all at once into a component or
an overall system, rather
than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
20. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have
more, fewer or different levels of
development and testing, depending on the project
and the software product. For
example, there may be component integration testing
after component testing,
and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model
B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model
21. Which technique can be used to achieve input and
output coverage? It can be
applied to human input, input via interfaces to a
system, or interface parameters
in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
22. There is one application, which runs on a single
terminal. There is another
application that works on multiple terminals. What
are the test techniques you
will use on the second application that you would
not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity
23. You are the test manager and you are about the
start the system testing. The
developer team says that due to change in
requirements they will be able to
deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days
after the due date. You can
not change the resources(work hours, test tools,
etc.) What steps you will take to
be able to finish the testing in time. (
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so
that testing activity will
be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip
going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on
critical functionality
testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
24. Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report
25. Testing of software used to convert data from
existing systems for use in
replacement systems
A. Data driven testing
B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing
D. Back to back testing
26. Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing
27. Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
28. “The tracing of requirements for a test level
through the layers of a test
documentation” done by
A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
29. A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and
major objectives of
the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable
phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to
conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under
test
30. You are a tester for testing a large system. The
system data model is very
large with many attributes and there are a lot of
inter dependencies with in the
fields. What steps would you use to test the system
and also what are the efforts
of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program
means stage containment
of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter
dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the
functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system
as a whole
31. Change request should be submitted through
development or program
management. A change request must be written and
should include the following
criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
A. I, III and IV B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II and
IV
32. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such
as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements
information available that
will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct
behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system
administration support
ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the
testing process to allow
testing to continue effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites
available in forms that
testers can use
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV.
33. “This life cycle model is basically driven by
schedule and budget risks” This
statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model
34. The bug tracking system will need to capture
these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and
IV
35. One of the more daunting challenges of managing
a test project is that so
many dependencies converge at test execution. One
missing configuration file or
hard ware device can render all your test results
meaning less. You can end up
with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for
days.
Who is responsible for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only
36. System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on
the results to the
system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3
business days prior to
starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and
release management
control
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
37. Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing B. Usability testing
C. Component testing D. Maintainability testing
Answers:
1 (A) 20 (B)
2 (C) 21 (D)
3 (A) 22 (C)
4 (C) 23 (C)
5 (B) 24 (B)
6 (A) 25 (B)
7 (B) 26 (D)
8 (A) 27 (B)
9 (A) 28 (A)
10 (C) 29 (C)
11 (C) 30 (A)
12 (A) 31 (D)
13 (B) 32 (A)
14 (B) 33 (D)
15 (D) 34 (B)
16 (C) 35 (A)
17 (D) 36 (D)
18 (B) 37 (A)
Tuesday, 3 November 2015
ISTQB-2015 CERTIFICATION DUMP 7
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 7
1. ___________ Testing will be performed by the
people at client own locations
(1M)
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
2. System testing should investigate (2M)
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
3. Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing
4. Who is responsible for document all the issues,
problems and open point that
were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author
5. What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
6. Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
7. ___________ technique can be used to achieve
input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing
8. Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing
9. ________________ testing is performed at the
developing organization’s site
(1M)
A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing
10. The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
11. Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
12. Poor software characteristics are (3M)
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
13. ________ and ________ are used within individual
workbenches to produce
the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update
14. The software engineer's role in tool selection
is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to
management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy
it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
15. A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to
ensure that standards are met
(2M)
A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure
16. Which of the following is the standard for the
Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
17. Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing
information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
18. Bug life cycle (1M)
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
19. Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability
20. Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
21. ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which
should be between 1 to 99. Using
BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99
22. Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None
23. Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables
24. PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
25. Contract and regulation testing is a part of
(2M)
A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
26. Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing
27. Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing
28. A software model that can’t be used in
functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
29. Find the mismatch (2M)
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be
traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
30. The principle of Cyclomatic complexity,
considering L as edges or links, N as
nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
31. FPA is used to (2M)
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information
system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
32. Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual
33. Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal
review (3M)
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
34. Stochastic testing using statistical information
or operational profiles uses
the following method (3M)
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
35. A project that is in the implementation phase is
six weeks behind schedule.
The delivery date for the product is four months
away. The project is not allowed
to slip the delivery date or compromise on the
quality standards established for
this product. Which of the following actions would
bring this project back on
schedule? (3M)
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been
implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work
is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current
software process improvement
meeting. Which of the following techniques should
the facilitator use to bring
other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed
to express their
opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s
opinion, and ask for
someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not
have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in
order to encourage
others to express their ideas.
37. Maintenance releases and technical assistance
centers are examples of which
of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Answers:
1 B 20 D
2 C 21 C
3 A 22 D
4 B 23 D
5 A 24 A
6 C 25 B
7 B 26 D
8 C 27 A
9 C 28 C
10 D 29 D
11 D 30 A
12 B 31 B
13 B 32 B
14 A 33 C
15 D 34 C
16 A 35 A
17 D 36 B
18 A 37 A
19 C
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