Tuesday, 10 May 2016

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 33

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 33
1. It is an unfair test to perform stress testing at the same time you perform
load testing.
a. True
b. False
2.Testing error message fall under __________ category of testing.
a. Incremental Testing
b. Thread Testing
c. Documentation Testing
d. Stress Testing
3.The term “defect” is related to the term “fault” because a “fault” is a defect,
which has not yet been identified.
a. True
b. False
4.What qualities must an individual possess to test effectively a software
application.
a. Good Communication Skill
b. Good Error Guessing
c. Good Analytical Skill
d. All of the above
5.Defects are least costly as what stage of Development cycle.
a. Analysis and Design
b. Construction
c. Requirements
d. Implementation
6.QC is
a. Phase building activity
b. Intermediate activity
c. End of Phase activity
d. Design activity
7.________ is monitoring defects from the time of recording until satisfactory
resolution has been determined.
a. Quality measurement
b. Defect measurement
c. Defect Tracking
d. None of the above
8. Most common cause of defects is
a. Failure to estimate
b. Failure to asses risks
c. Ambiguous or incomplete requirements
d. Weak communication
9. Verification activities during design stages are
a. Reviewing and Inspecting
b. Inspecting and Testing
c. Reviewing and Testing
d. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.
10. Decision to stop testing should be based upon
a. Successful use of specific test case design methodologies
b. A percentage of coverage for each coverage category
c. Rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold
d. All of the above
11. Testing, which is carried out using no recognized test case design
a. Failure Testing
b. Adhoc Testing
c. Exhaustive Testing
d. Empty test case Testing
12. A test case design technique for a component in which test cases
are designed to execute statements is called as?
a. State transition Testing
b. Static Testing
c. Transition testing
d. Statement testing
13. This testing is a mechanism that simulates problems in the original
environment so that an alternative-processing environment can be tested.
a. Disaster testing
b. Functional testing
c. Regression testing
d. Compliance Testing
14. Status Reports in Test Director can be generated using
a. Document Viewer
b. Document Generator
c. Document Tracker
d. None of the above
15.The following five tasks are needed to develop, use and maintain Test scripts.
Unit scripting
Pseudo concurrency scripting
Integration scripting
Regression scripting
Stress/Performance scripting
a.1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
16.Testing where the system is subjected to large number of idea.
a. System Testing
b. Volume Testing
c. Statistical Testing
d. Statement Testing
17.Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the
system’s components being combined to form the system.
a. System Testing
b. Component Testing
c. Incremental Testing
d. Big bang Testing
18.Recovery testing aims at verifying the system’s ability to recover from varying
degrees of failure.
a. True
b. False
19.Which testing methods are used by end-users who actually test software
before they use it?
a. Alpha and Beta Testing
b. White Box Testing
c. Black Box Testing
d. Trial and Error Testing
20.The testing attempts to violate those procedures, which should test the
adequacy of the security procedures.
a. Disaster testing
b. Functional testing
c. Regression testing
d. Compliance testing
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values
greater than or equal to 22 are rejected;
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers
the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
31.Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems
32.Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review
processes:
1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
33.Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing
34.Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35.The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729
36.The cost of fixing a fault:
a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined
37.Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation Standard?
a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines
38.Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39.Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions
40.Error guessing is best used:
a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live
Answers:
Q.1-B
Q.2-C
Q.3-A
Q.4-D
Q.5-C
Q.6-C
Q.7-C
Q.8-C
Q.9-D
Q.10-D
Q.11-B
Q.12-D
Q.13-A
Q.14-B
Q.15-D
Q.16-B
Q.17-D
Q.18-A
Q.19-A
Q.20-D
Q.21-B
Q.22-D
Q.23-C
Q.24-A
Q.25-B
Q.26-D
Q.27-A
Q.28-D
Q.29-C
Q.30-B
Q.31-B
Q.32-A
Q.33-D
Q.34-A
Q.35-B
Q.36-B
Q.37-C
Q.38-C
Q.39-B

Q.40-A
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ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 32

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 32
1. What is not the primary data given by the tester in test execution
a. Total number of tests
b. Number of test cases written for change request
c. Number of test executed to date
d. Number of tests executed successfully to date
2. Do the current project results meet the performance requirements? Which
section of Project Status Report I should look for:
a. Vital Project Information
b. General Project Information
c. Project Activities Information
d. Essential Elements Information
3. Which is a section of Summary status report
a. Vital project information
b. Essential elements information
c. Project activities information
d.Time Line Information
4.Test Result data is
a. Test Transactions
b. Test events
c. Business objectives
d. Reviews
5.What types of efficiench can be evaluated during testing?
a. Software system
b. Testing
c. Development
d. A and C
e. A and B
6.Who is essentially responsible for the quality of a product?
a. Customer
b. QA Manager
c. Development Manager
d. Test Manager
7.What are the 3 costs that make up the Cost of Quality?
a. Prevention, Appraisal, Failure
b. Appraisal, Developement, Testing
c. Testing, Prevention, rework
d. Failure, Prevention, Testing
8.What are expected production costs?
a. labor, materials, and equipment
b. personnel, training, and rollout
c. training, testing, user-acceptance
9.Appraisal costs are:
a. Costs associated with preventing errors
b. Costs associated with detection of errors
c. Costs associated with defective products delivered to customers
10.An example of a Failure Cost is:
a. Training
b. Inspections
c. Rework
11. If you could build a 0 defect product, would there be any costs involved?
If yes, what costs?
a. Preventive costs, but they are minimally involved
b. No costs will be involved
c. Failure costs
12. How many Deming principles are there?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 7
13. How many levels are in the CMM?
a. 18
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14. The Pareto analysis is most effective for:
a) Ranking items by importance
b) Showing relationships between items Measuring the impact of identified items
15. What is COTS?
a. Commercial On-the-shelf software
b. Commercial off-the-shelf software
c. Common Offshore testing Software
16. What is the purpose of code coverage tools?
a. They are used to show the extent to which the logic in the program
was executed during testing.
b. They are used as an alternative to testing
c. They are used to compile the program
17.Four examples of test specific metrics.
a. Testing Effort variation, Defect Density, Testing Efficiency, Requirements tested.
b. Inspection, review efficiency, Testing Effort variation, Defect Density
c. Test scalability, Defect deviation, Testing Efficiency, Schedule variation
18.Give one commonly recognized size measurement tool.
a. Effort analysis
b. LCO Analysis
c. LOC Analysis
d. Code Analysis
19.Give three components included in a system test report.
a. Description of Testing; resource requirement; and Recommendation
b. Testing requirements; defects; and usability
c. Description of test results and finding(defects); Summary(environment and
references; and Recommendation)
20.Reviews is what category of cost of quality?
a. preventive
b. Appraisal
c. Failure
21.The largest cose of quality is from production failure
a. True
b. False
22. Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?
a. Requirements
b. Analysis and Design
c. Construction
d. Implementation
23. The purpose of software testing is to:
a. Demonstrate that the application works properly
b. Detect the defects
c. Validate the logical design
24. _________must be developed to describe when and how testing will
occur.
a. Test Strategy
b. Test Plan
c. Test Design
d. High Level document
25. It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks
a. True
b. False
26. __________ testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program
is known.
a. Black Box testing
b. Performance Testing
c. White Box testing
d. Functional testing
27. _________ test is conducted at the developer’s site by a customer.
a. Beta
b. System
c. Alpha
d. None of the above
28. Juran is famous for
a. Quality Control
b. Working on Trend Analysis
c. Pareto
d. Fish Bone Diagram
29.Software testing activities should start
a. As soon as the code is written
b. During the design stage
c. When the requirements have been formally documented
d. As soon as possible in the development lifecycle
30.Non statistical tools are used in the
a. Work Practice process
b. Benchmarking process
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
31.Quality Function deploement(QFD) is a
a. Statistical tool
b. Non statistical tool
c. Development tool
d. None of the above
32.The sequence of the four Phases involved in Bench marking process is
a. Action, Planning, Integration, Analysis
b. Planning, Analysis, Integration, Action
c. Analysis, Planning, Integration, Action
d. Analysis, Action, Planning, Integration
33.Defect Density is calculated by
a. Total no. of Defects/Effort
b. Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defect
c. Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects
d. Valid Defects/ Effort
34.Effort Variation is calculated by
a. (Planned-Actual)/Actual
b. (Actual-Planned)/Actual
c. (Actual-Planned)/Planned
d. (Planned-Actully)/Planned
35.Percentage Rework is calculated by
a. (Review effort + Rework effort)/Actual Effort expended
b. (Review effort + Rework effort)/Actual Effort expended
c. Rework Effort/Planned Effort
d. Rework Effort/Actual Effort expanded
36. The ______________ is an application of process management and quality
improvement concepts to software development and maintenance.
a. Malcolm Baldridge
b. ISO 9000
c. SEI/CMM
d. QS14000
37. A quantitative measurement used to determine the test completion is
a. Defect measurement
b. Requirements coverage
c. Statistical Analysis
38. The categories of Error Oriented Techniques are
a. Statistical assessment and Error-based testing
b. Error-based testing and Fault based testing.
c. Fault based testing and Statistical assessment
d. Statistical assessment, Error-based testing and Fault based testing.
39. The following factors should be considered for the Test Tool selection
1.Test Phase
2.Test Objective
3.Test Technique
4.Test Deliverable
a. 1 & 2
b. 1,2,3& 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1,2& 3
40. Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:
a. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class
at least once
b. Identify all inputs and all outputs
c. Identify equivalence classes for each input
d. All of the above
Answers:
Q.1-B
Q.2-D
Q.3-D
Q.4-C
Q.5-E
Q.6-C
Q.7-A
Q.8-A
Q.9-B
Q.10-C
Q.11-A
Q.12-B
Q.13-D
Q.14-A
Q.15-B
Q.16-A
Q.17-A
Q.18-C
Q.19-C
Q.20-B
Q.21-A
Q.22-A
Q.23-A
Q.24-B
Q.25-A
Q.26-C
Q.27-C
Q.28-A
Q.29-D
Q.30-B
Q.31-B
Q.32-B
Q.33-A
Q.34-C
Q.35-D
Q.36-C
Q.37-B
Q.38-D
Q.39-B

Q.40-D
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ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 31

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 31
1. File Integrity falls under
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
2.Operations testing is
a. compliance tesitng
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operatins
3.Security falls under
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
4.Portability falls under
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. fuctional testing
e. ease of operations
5.What are the four attributes to be present in any test problem?
a. statement, criteria, effect and cause
b. priority, fix, schedule and report
c. statement, fix effect and report
d. none of the above
6.Which is not the Phase of SDLC?
a. Initiation Phase
b. Defintion Phase
c. Planning Phase
d. Programming and Training Phase
7.Comparision of the expected benefit versus the cost of the solution is done in
which phase of SDLC?
a. Defintion Phase
b. Design Phase
b. Initiation Phase
d. Implementation Phase
8.Who is the policy/oversight participant in SDLC?
a. Project Manager
b. Contracting Office
c. Information Technology Manager
d. Information Resorces Management Official
9. Who reviews proposed procurement for sufficiency in the acquisition and
installation of the Off-the-Self Software?
a. Sponsor / User
b. Project Manager
c. IT Manger
d. All of the Above
10. “V” testing process is
a. System development process and system test process begins
b. Testing starts after coding is done
c. Do procedures are followed by Check procedures
d. Testing starts after the prototype is done
11. Validation is
a. Execute test
b. Review code
c. Desk check
d. Audit
12. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process
a. Assess development plan and status
b. Develop the test plan
c. Test software design
d. Test software requirement
13. Structural testing is
a. Requirements are properly satisfied by the application
b. Uncover errors during “Coding” of the program
c. Functions works properly
d. To test how the business requirements are implemented.
14. Functional testing is
a. Path testing
b. Technology has been used properly
c. Uncover errors that occurs in implementing requirements.
d. Uncover errors in program unit.
15. Structural testing is NOT
a. Installation testing
b. Stress testing
c. Recovery testing
d. Compliance testing
16.Stress testing transaction can be obtained from
a. Test Data generators
b. Test transactions created by the test group
c. Transactions previously processed in the production evironment
d. All of the above.
17.Who will assess vulnerability in the system
a. Internal Control Officer
b. System Security Officer
c. QA Engineer
d. Test Manager
18.What is the structure testing process
a. Parallel
b. Regression
c. Stress
d. Intersystem
19.What is Risk analysis?
a. Evaluating risks
b. Evaluating Controls
c. Evaluating vulnerabilities
d. All of the above
20.Major component of Risk Analysis are
a. The probability that the negative event will occur
b. The potential loss is very high
c. The potential loss or impact associated with the event
21. Method of conducting Risk Analysis is
a. Use your judgment
b. Use your instict
c. Cost of failure
d. All of the above
22.Which is not Testing Risk
a. Budget
b. Number of qualified test resources
c. Sequence and increments of code delivery
d. Inadequately tested applications
23.If abnormal termination type X occurs 100 times per year, and the loss per
occurrence is $500, then the loss associated with the risk is $50,000. What
methods of measuring the magnitude of risk I am using?
a. Judgment
b. Annual loss expectation estimation
c. Risk Formula
d. Consensus
24. What is Cascading error?
a. Unrelated errors
b. Triggers a second unrelated error in another part
c. A functionality could not be tested
d. Two similar errors
25. Configuration defects will be introduced if
a. Environment is not stable
b. Environment does not mirror test environment
c. Environment does not mirror production environment
d. All of the above
26. Quality Risk is
a. Requirement comply with methodology
b. Incorrect result will be produced
c. Result of the system are unreliable
d. Complex technology used.
27. Risk control objectives are established in
a. Design phase
b. Requirement Phase
c. Testing Phase
d. Implementation Phase
28. Which of the following is not Risk characteristic
a. Inherent in every project
b. Neither intrinsically good not bad
c. Something to fear but not something to manage
d. Probability of loss
29. Application developed should fit user’s business process. The components of
fit are
a. Data
b. People
c. Structure
d. All of the above
30. Which is not the responsibility of customer/ user of the software
a. Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed
b. Prepare the acceptance plan
c. Prepare resource plan
d. Plan resources for providing information on which to base acceptance decisions
31.In preparation for developing the acceptance criteria, the user should
a. Know the defects in the application
b. Acquire the basis knowledge of the application for which the system is intended
c. Understand the risks and benefits of the development methodology that is to be used
in correcting the software system
d. Know new enhancement and basic understanding of how the application is
implemented in users organization
32.Acceptance requirements that a system should meet is
a. Usability
b. Understandablity
c. Functionality
d. Enhancements
33.Testing techniques that can be used in acceptance testing are
a. Structural
b. Functional
c. Usability
d. A and B
e. B and C
34.For final software acceptance testing, the system should include
a. Delivered software
b. All user documents
c. Final version of other sofware deliverables
d. All of the above
35.Accepatance testing means
a. Testing performed on a single stand-alone module or unit of code
b. Testing after changes has been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were
introduced
c. Testing to ensure that the system meets the need of the organization and end user.
d. Users test the application in the developers environment
36.Acceptance tests are normally conduced by the
a. Developers
b. End users
c. Test team
d. System engineers
37. Which is not test result data
a. Test factors
b. Interface objective
c. Platform
d. Test estimation
38. What type of test that will be conducted during the execution of tests, which
will be based on software requirements. What category of status data I am
looking?
a. Test Result
b. Test Transaction
c. Defects
d. Efficiency
39. Summary (project)status report provides
a. General view of a project
b. General view of all the projects
c. Detailed view of all the projects
d. Detailed information about a project
40. Project status report provides
a. General view of a project
b. General view of all the projects
c. Detailed view of all the projects
d. Detailed information about a project
Answers:
Q.1-D
Q.2-E
Q.3-A
Q.4-B
Q.5-A
Q.6-C
Q.7-C
Q.8-D
Q.9-A
Q.10-A
Q.11-A
Q.12-C
Q.13-B
Q.14-C
Q.15-B
Q.16-D
Q.17-A
Q.18-C
Q.19-D
Q.20-D
Q.21-D
Q.22-D
Q.23-C
Q.24-B
Q.25-D
Q.26-A
Q.27-B
Q.28-C
Q.29-D
Q.30-C
Q.31-C
Q.32-C
Q.33-D
Q.34-D
Q.35-C
Q.36-B
Q.37-D
Q.38-B
Q.39-B

Q.40-D
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