ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 4
1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each
test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is
easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can
run different tests in different environments.
d) The more
stages we have, the better the testing.
2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use
of test tools providing test capture
and replay facilities?
a)
Regression testing
b)
Integration testing
c) System
testing
d) User
acceptance testing
3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A
minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100%
branch coverage.
b) A
minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100%
statement coverage.
c) A
minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more
faults than one that
achieves
100% statement coverage.
d) A
minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect
more faults than one
that
achieves 100% branch coverage.
4. Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The
system shall be user friendly.
b) The
safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The
response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The
system shall be built to be portable.
5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type
of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer
wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies
‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will
be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will
be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will
be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide
the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the
questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies
given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6
6 Error
guessing:
a)
supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only
be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only
performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not
repeatable and should not be used.
7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test
coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A
measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements
covered.
c) A measure
of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test
coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is
to:
a) find as
many faults as possible.
b) test
high risk areas.
c) obtain
good test coverage.
d) test
whatever is easiest to test.
9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and
activity descriptions (1-5), which
one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v –
test control
w –
test monitoring
x - test
estimation
y -
incident management
z -
configuration control
1 -
calculation of required test resources
2 -
maintenance of record of test results
3 -
re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report
on deviation from test plan
5 -
tracking of anomalous test results
a)
v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b)
v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c)
v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d)
v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is
NOT true?
a) System
tests are often performed by independent teams.
b)
Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults
found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d)
End-users should be involved in system tests.
11. Which of the following is false?
a)
Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An
incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c)
Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An
incident can be raised against documentation.
12. Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time
runs out.
b) the
required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more
faults are found.
d) the users
won’t find any serious faults.
13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident
resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b)
Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c)
Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d)
Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test
standard?
a) syntax
testing
b)
equivalence partitioning
c) stress
testing
d) modified
condition/decision coverage
15. Which of the following is false?
a) In a
system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system
is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault
need not affect the reliability of a system.
d)
Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay
tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are
used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are
used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are
the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They
capture aspects of user behaviour.
17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be
required?
a) Metrics
from previous similar projects
b)
Discussions with the development team
c) Time
allocated for regression testing
d) a &
b
18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It
states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only
models the testing phase.
c) It
specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It
includes the verification of designs.
19. The oracle assumption:
a) is that
there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that
the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that
the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that
the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are
cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix
in the latest
test
phases.
b) They are
easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults
are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to
fix then.
d) Although
faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are
cheapest to fix
then.
21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for
a test?
a) To find
faults in the software.
b) To
assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate
that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove
that the software is correct.
22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary
value analysis
b)
Usability testing
c)
Performance testing
d) Security
testing
23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test
plan?
a) Features
to be tested
b) Incident
reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost
saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test
management
b) Test
design
c) Test
execution
d) Test
planning
25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a)
Statement testing
b) Path
testing
c) Data
flow testing
d) State
transition testing
26. Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible
communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate
of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use
of data on paths through the code.
d) the
intrinsic complexity of the code.
27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed
at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary
Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable
the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be
performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be
performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are
cheap to perform.
29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes
for User Acceptance Test
scripts?
a) Actual
results
b) Program
specification
c) User
requirements
d) System
specification
30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an
inspection?
a) An
inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained
moderator.
b) An
inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors
are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A
walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained
moderator.
31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of
verification early in the life cycle?
a) It
allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It
facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It
reduces defect multiplication.
d) It
allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32. Integration testing in the small:
a) tests
the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests
interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only
uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests
interfaces to other systems.
33. Static analysis is best described as:
a) the
analysis of batch programs.
b) the
reviewing of test plans.
c) the
analysis of program code.
d) the use
of black box testing.
34. Alpha testing is:
a)
post-release testing by end user representatives at the
developer’s site.
b) the
first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release
testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d)
pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35. A failure is:
a) found in
the software; the result of an error.
b) departure
from specified behaviour.
c) an
incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human
action that produces an incorrect result.
36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed
at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same
equivalence class?
a) £4800;
£14000; £28000
b) £5200;
£5500; £28000
c) £28001;
£32000; £35000
d) £5800;
£28000; £32000
37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes
test preparation easier.
b) means
inspections are not required.
c) can
prevent fault multiplication.
d) will
find all faults.
38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews
cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews
are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews
are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews
should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39. Test cases are designed during:
a) test
recording.
b) test
planning.
c) test
configuration.
d) test
specification.
40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage
of customer requirements to version numbers.
b)
facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the
precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d)
restricted access to the source code library.
Answers:
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
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