ISTQB
Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 2
1.
When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected
behavior, this is
called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2.
Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software
has changed
x) as often as
possible
y) when the
environment has changed
z) when the project
manager says
a) v & w are
true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are
true, v & z are false
c) w & y are
true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y
and z are false
e) all of the above
are true
3.
IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4.
Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned
tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have
been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the
risks for the system being tested
5.
Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999
inclusive. Which
of
the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid
equivalence classes and
valid
boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000,
100000
c) 10000, 50000,
99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000,
50000, 99999, 10000
6.
Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design
can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found
during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test
design can find faults
iv. early test design
can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design
takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv
are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I,
ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are
true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v
are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are
true, ii, iv & v are false
7.
Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see
where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality
attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system
feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system
feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for
functions that should not exist
8.
Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting
of configuration items
b) auditing
conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of
test versions
d) record of changes
to documentation over time
e) controlled library
access
9.
Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
integration testing in
the
small?
a) to ensure that all
of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the
system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which
modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the
integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the
software should be divided into modules
10.
What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a
specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the
test case specification is complete
c) to set the
criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test
planning is complete
e) to plan when to
stop testing
11.
Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be
closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not
be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage
of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident
record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should
be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true,
I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true,
ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are
true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true,
iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii,
iii, iv and v are false
12.
Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases
required for
full
statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for
statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for
statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for
statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for
statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for
statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13.
Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears
THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for
statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for
statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for
statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for
statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for
statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14.
Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for
statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for
statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for
statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for
statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for
statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
15.
Consider the following:
Pick up and read the
newspaper
Look at what is on
television
If there is a program
that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch
the
program
Otherwise
Continue reading the
newspaper
If there is a
crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16.
The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool
exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to
give a demo
c) Analyse your needs
and requirements
d) Find out what your
budget would be for the tool
e) Search the
internet
17.
When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to
establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may
eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent
testing team
d) The managers to
see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor
contractor to write the initial scripts
18.
What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a
variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable
(“dead”) code
c) Whether the value
stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition
of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound
violations
19.
Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence
partitioning
b) State transition
testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value
analysis
20.
Beta testing is:
a) Performed by
customers at their own site
b) Performed by
customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an
independent test team
d) Useful to test
bespoke software
e) Performed as early
as possible in the lifecycle
21.
Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by
developers and which
by
an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance
testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data
preparation
a) developers would
typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would
typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would
typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would
typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would
typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
22.
The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in
the system
b) ensuring that the
system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system
with other systems
d) testing for a
business perspective
e) testing by an
independent test team
23.
Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is
false:
a) black box design
techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design
techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic
complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box
measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box
measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24.
Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the
most formal review process
b) inspections should
be led by a trained leader
c) managers can
perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is
appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection
compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
25.
A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) generating
expected outputs
b) replaying inputs
according to a programmed script
c) comparison of
expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test
inputs
e) reading test
values from a data file
26.
The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is
running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks
for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done
after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses
different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done
by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
27.
Expected results are:
a) only important in
system testing
b) only used in
component testing
c) never specified in
advance
d) most useful when
specified in advance
e) derived from the
code
28.
Test managers should not:
a) report on
deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system
off for release
c) re-allocate
resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on
faults that they have found
e) provide
information for risk analysis and quality improvement
29.
Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management
tool
e) a static analysis
tool
30.
A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of
tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis
tool
b) a test execution
tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management
tool
e) a configuration
management tool
31.
What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the
fault
b) how to reproduce
the fault
c) test environment
details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and
expected outcomes
32.
Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review
processes:1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management
participation
4. led by a trained
moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit
criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u =
2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t =
3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t =
3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u =
3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t =
1, u = 2, v = 3
33.
Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business
process-based testing
b) performance, load
and stress testing
c) requirements-based
testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down
integration testing
34.
What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes
are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes
are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes
include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes
should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes
may include timing constraints such as response times
35.
The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36.
The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we
move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we
move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive
if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be
determined
37.
Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation
Standard:
a) Test items (i.e.
software versions)
b) What is not to be
tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and
deadlines
38.
Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they
apply to development documentation
b) No, because they
are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they
do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both
help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because
testing includes all non-constructive activities
39.
Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response
time
b) Measuring
transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many
users
e) Generating many
transactions
40.
Error guessing is best used
a) As the first
approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal
techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced
testers
d) After the system
has gone live
e) Only by end users
Answers:
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 E
30 D
31 A
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B
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